Auxillium and Vivus’ erectile dysfunction drug Strenda has been granted a new designation by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that may help it compete against the dominating pills in the market, Pfizer’s Viagra and Eli Lilly’s Cialis. Strenda has been granted “fast-acting” status, allowing the pill to be taken just 15 minutes before sex, instead of 30 minutes as previously stated on its label. Comparatively, Cialis must be taken daily while Viagra must be taken one to two hours before sex.
Strendra contains the active ingredient avanafil, which is in a class of drugs called phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Other drugs in this class include tadalafil, the active ingredient in Cialis, and sildenafil, the active ingredient in Viagra. Strenda was originally approved by the FDA in April 2012.
Side effects with erectile dysfunction drugs include heartburn, flushing skin, bloody nose, and muscle aches and pains. However, recent studies suggest the drug may put men at greater risk of developing the deadliest form of skin cancer.
New research published in JAMA Internal Medicine found that men who used Viagra have an 84 percent increased risk of developing melanoma compared to men who did not use the drug.
Viagra, as well as other phosphodiesterase inhibitors, affects the same genetic pathway – BRAF – that allows skin cancer to be more aggressive. The study focused on whether Viagra impacted the risk of melanoma. Researchers found that if men had ever used Viagra, they had twice the risk of developing the disease, indicating that the risk remained even after the drug was discontinued.
Source: Fierce Pharma